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Paper 1: Reading

IGCSE First Language English (0500) · 2 hours · 80 marks · 50% of the qualification
Four compulsory questions, twenty marks each, three texts on an insert. This guide takes them one at a time — what each one actually rewards, how to build the answer, and the specific habits that quietly cost marks. Written for the 2027 syllabus, which is not the paper most revision videos are describing.

Hi Tara. Paper 1 is the half of English Language where you are not being asked to be interesting. You are being asked to be accurate, obedient and fast — to read three texts you have never seen, work out exactly what four questions want, and hand back precisely that. It is the most trainable paper you will sit in any subject, because almost nothing in it depends on inspiration.

The reason students underperform on it is rarely that they misunderstood the texts. It is that they answered a slightly different question from the one printed, or wrote a hundred and eighty words where the paper said one hundred and twenty, or spent twenty-five minutes on a question worth the same as the one they then rushed in nine. Almost every mark lost on Paper 1 is lost to process, and process is fixable in an afternoon.

One warning before you start. The 0500 syllabus was rewritten for first examination in 2027 — your year. Most of what is online describes the old paper, which had different question numbers, a different summary format and a choice you no longer get. If a video tells you Question 1 is worth 15 marks, or that the key words are underlined, close it. This guide is on the new spec.

The paper at a glance

2 hours. 80 marks. Three texts (A, B and C) on a separate insert, roughly 1400 words in total. Four compulsory questions, 20 marks each. No choice anywhere.

QuestionTextWhat you doLengthMarks
1Text AComprehension — a series of short sub-questions on explicit and implicit meaningShort answers20 reading
2(a)Text BSelective summary in your own words, as continuous writingNo more than 120 words10 reading + 5 writing
2(b)Text BShort answer on the writer’s or a speaker’s attitudes and opinionsShort answer5 reading
3(i)Text CShort-answer questions, including 2-mark questions on the meaning of words shown in boldShort answers10 reading
3(ii)Text CLanguage task — how the writer uses language to convey meaning and create effect200–250 words10 reading
4Text CExtended response to reading — letter, report, journal, speech, interview or article250–300 words10 reading + 10 writing

Weighting on this paper: AO1 Reading just over 80%, AO2 Writing just under 20%. Sixty-five of the eighty marks are for reading and fifteen are for writing. That single fact should govern every decision you make in the room: when in doubt, prove you have understood the text rather than polishing a sentence.

1. How Paper 1 Works ▼

What is actually in front of you

You will be handed two things: a question paper, which is thin, and an insert, which contains the reading. The insert holds three separate texts, labelled Text A, Text B and Text C. Together they run to about 1400 words, so each one is roughly the length of a page and a half of a novel or one column of a newspaper feature. They are not connected to each other by topic. Do not waste a second looking for a link between them; there usually isn’t one, and no question ever asks you to compare across texts.

The three texts are chosen to do different jobs:

  • Text A is usually narrative or literary — an extract from fiction, a memoir, a piece of travel writing. It is there to be understood, in detail, at both the literal and the suggested level. Question 1 is entirely about Text A.
  • Text B is usually informative or opinion-based — a report, an article, an interview, a first-person account of a job or a campaign. It has to contain enough separate, listable points to support a summary. Question 2 (both parts) is entirely about Text B.
  • Text C is the richest and most deliberately written of the three — descriptive non-fiction or fiction, with vivid vocabulary and imagery. It has to survive being pulled apart for language analysis and it has to give you enough material to write from a persona. Question 3 and Question 4 both come from Text C.

So: one text feeds one question, one text feeds one question, and one text — Text C — feeds two questions worth forty marks between them. That last fact is worth remembering when you decide which text to read most carefully in reading time.

The four questions, and why the shape matters

Four questions. Twenty marks each. Every one compulsory. That is the whole architecture, and it is a much kinder architecture than the one the previous cohorts sat.

On the old paper the questions were worth uneven amounts — 15 here, 25 there, 10 somewhere else — and students had to do arithmetic under pressure to work out where their time should go. Worse, the sizes tempted people into abandoning small questions. On the new paper there is no small question. Question 1 is worth exactly as much as Question 4. Half-answering the comprehension because you want more time for the extended response is a straight swap of ten easy marks for two hard ones.

Remember this

Four twenties. If you can only hold one fact about Paper 1 in your head on the morning of the exam, hold that one. Four questions, twenty marks each, none of them optional, none of them cheaper than the others. Twenty-five minutes each, plus slack. Nothing gets abandoned.

A timing plan you can actually follow

Two hours is 120 minutes. The paper is designed with about 15 minutes of reading built in, which leaves 105 minutes of writing for 80 marks — a bit over a minute a mark. Here is a plan that leaves you thirteen minutes of genuine slack at the end, which you will need, because something always takes longer than it should.

ClockMinutesWhat you are doing
0:00–0:044Read the questions first. All four, including every sub-question and every word limit. Circle the focus of the 2(a) summary. Note which of the six text types Question 4 wants. You now know what you are looking for before you look.
0:04–0:1511Read the insert, annotating for question focus. Text A once, carefully. Text B with the summary focus in mind, ticking points as you go. Text C twice — once for sense, once for the language that stands out.
0:15–0:3722Question 1 (20 marks). Comprehension sub-questions on Text A. Short answers, no introductions, no spare sentences.
0:37–0:425Question 2(b) (5 marks). Do the attitudes question before the summary — it is quick, it is only 5 marks, and doing it first stops you burning the whole Q2 slot on the summary and arriving at 2(b) with ninety seconds left.
0:42–1:0523Question 2(a) (15 marks). Summary. Roughly 8 minutes harvesting and numbering points, 10 minutes drafting, 5 minutes counting words and cutting.
1:05–1:149Question 3(i) (10 marks). Short answers on Text C, including the 2-mark bold-word meanings.
1:14–1:3218Question 3(ii) (10 marks). The language task, 200–250 words. About 3 minutes choosing your words and phrases, 15 minutes writing.
1:32–1:4715Question 4 (20 marks). Extended response, 250–300 words. 3 minutes planning the persona and the three ideas you will develop, 12 minutes writing.
1:47–2:0013Slack and checking. Count the words on 2(a). Reread Question 1 for any sub-question you skipped. Fix the spelling errors you know you make. Do not rewrite anything.
⚠ Exam tip

Write the four finish times on your question paper in the first minute. Not durations — actual clock times, worked out from the clock on the wall. “Q1 done by 10:22” is a thought you can act on at 10:20. “Q1 should take 22 minutes” is a sum you will not do again once you start writing.

And when a finish time passes, stop, even mid-sentence, and move on. You can come back in the slack at the end. The marks you lose by leaving a question 90% finished are always smaller than the marks you lose by never starting the next one.

The five reading objectives, in plain English

Every mark on this paper is an AO1 Reading mark or an AO2 Writing mark, and the reading marks are split into five numbered objectives, R1 to R5. You will never be asked to name them. But knowing which one a question is testing tells you what kind of sentence to write, which is why they are worth ten minutes of your attention now.

Here they are as Cambridge words them, followed by what that actually means when you have a pen in your hand.

R1 — explicit meanings Q1, Q3(i)

Syllabus wording: demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings.

Plain English: can you find the thing the text actually says, and say it back accurately? Nothing is hidden. The answer is on the page; the skill is locating it and not garbling it.

A question that tests it: “Give two reasons why the narrator decided not to return to the village that night.”

What earns the mark: the right detail, in your own words where you can manage it, with no extra material bolted on. What loses it: copying a whole sentence and hoping the right bit is inside it.

R2 — implicit meanings and attitudes Q1, Q2(b)

Syllabus wording: demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes.

Plain English: can you hear what the text is suggesting without saying? This is the objective that separates a good comprehension answer from a full-mark one. Implicit meaning lives in word choice, in what a character does rather than says, in what a writer keeps returning to, and in what is conspicuously left out.

A question that tests it: “Using your own words, explain what the writer suggests about the relationship between the two brothers.”

What earns the mark: a sentence of the shape “the writer suggests X, because the text says Y”. The evidence has to be there, but the answer is the inference, not the evidence.

R3 — analyse, evaluate and develop Q4

Syllabus wording: analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text.

Plain English: can you take something the text gives you and do something with it — extend it, judge it, work out its consequences — while still showing it came from the text? This is the objective behind the ten reading marks on Question 4, and it is the reason a Question 4 that simply retells Text C from a different pronoun scores badly.

A question that tests it: “You are the guide described in Text C. Write a report for the expedition company about the changes you would recommend for next season.”

What earns the mark: ideas that are visibly rooted in the text but taken further than the text takes them. “Develop” is the key verb: the text is your starting line, not your finishing line.

R4 — how writers achieve effects Q3(ii)

Syllabus wording: demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers.

Plain English: can you explain why this word rather than a duller one, and what it does to the picture in a reader’s head? R4 is the whole of the language task in 3(ii). Notice what it does not say: it does not say “identify devices”. Naming a metaphor is not understanding an effect.

A question that tests it: “Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and create effect in these two paragraphs. Choose three words or phrases from each and explain your choices.”

What earns the mark: the literal meaning of the word here, then the picture or feeling it produces, then why the writer wanted that. Section 4 gives you a shape for this.

R5 — select and use information for a purpose Q2(a)

Syllabus wording: select and use information for specific purposes.

Plain English: can you go through a text with one narrow question in mind and take out only the material that answers it, leaving everything else behind? R5 is the summary objective, and the word doing all the work is select. A summary that includes an interesting point which does not answer the question has failed R5 twice over — once for including it, and once for the space it stole.

A question that tests it: “According to Text B, what difficulties do the volunteers face? Write a summary using your own words. Use no more than 120 words.”

What earns the mark: the number of distinct relevant points you land, expressed in your own words. Elegance is a separate five marks; coverage is the ten.

Where the writing marks are. Only 15 of the 80 marks on this paper are AO2 Writing marks: five on the summary (2(a)) and ten on the extended response (Question 4), with the extended response also carrying ten reading marks. Everywhere else — Question 1, Question 2(b), Question 3 in both parts — nobody is marking your style at all. Your answer needs to be clear and grammatical enough to be understood, and after that, extra polish earns literally nothing. Save the effort for 2(a) and Q4.

Why the new structure is friendlier than the old one

Three things changed for 2027, and all three are in your favour once you know about them.

  1. Equal blocks. Four questions at twenty marks each removes the biggest strategic error on the old paper, which was misjudging how much a question was worth and over-investing. You no longer need a strategy. You need a stopwatch.
  2. A shorter summary with a clearer brief. The summary is capped at 120 words and is explicitly marked 10 for reading and 5 for writing. That split tells you exactly where to spend your effort: get the points in first, then make them read well. Students who write a beautiful 200-word summary containing four points score worse than students who write a plain 115-word summary containing eight.
  3. Bold, not underlining, for the vocabulary questions. A small change with a real consequence: bold survives photocopying and is easier to spot when you are skimming. When you meet a bold word in Text C, that is the paper telling you a 2-mark question is coming about exactly that word.

What has not changed is the thing that catches most candidates: this is a reading paper, and the examiner is looking for evidence that you understood a text, not evidence that you can write. Sixty-five of eighty marks. Keep saying it.

⚠ Exam tip

Answer in the order printed, with one exception. Do 1, then 2(b), then 2(a), then 3(i), 3(ii), 4. Swapping 2(b) and 2(a) is the one deviation worth making, for the reason in the timing table: 2(b) is five quick marks and it protects them from being crushed by the summary. Otherwise, work forwards. The paper is sequenced by text, and hopping between texts costs you re-reading time you cannot spare.

Practice Questions: How Paper 1 Works
8 multiple choice questions. Click an option to check your answer.
Your Score 0 / 8
Question 1
How many marks is each of the four questions on Paper 1 worth?
A 20 marks each
B 15, 20, 20 and 25 respectively
C It depends which text the question is on
D 10 marks each, doubled at moderation
Four compulsory questions, 20 marks each, 80 in total. The equal blocks are the single most useful fact about the new paper: there is no cheap question to abandon and no expensive one to over-invest in. If you find yourself ten minutes over on Question 1, you are borrowing from a question worth exactly the same.
Question 2
Which text does the extended response in Question 4 come from?
A Text A
B Text C
C Text B
D All three texts combined
Text C carries both Question 3 and Question 4 — forty of the eighty marks. That is why Text C is the one to read twice in reading time. No question on this paper asks you to compare or combine texts.
Question 3
Which reading objective is the summary in Question 2(a) mainly testing?
A R2 — implicit meanings and attitudes
B R4 — how writers achieve effects
C R5 — select and use information for specific purposes
D R1 — explicit meanings only
R5 is about selection. The examiner is checking whether you can go through a text holding one narrow question in your head and take out only what answers it. Including a genuinely interesting point that does not answer the question is not a neutral act — it costs you the words a scoring point needed.
Question 4
Roughly how much of Paper 1 is reading, and how much is writing?
A 50% reading, 50% writing
B 100% reading — there are no writing marks
C 20% reading, 80% writing
D Roughly 80% reading (65 marks), roughly 20% writing (15 marks)
AO1 Reading is just over 80% of this paper and AO2 Writing just under 20% — 65 marks against 15. Those 15 writing marks live in exactly two places: five on the summary and ten on Question 4. Everywhere else your prose style is invisible to the mark scheme, so a plain, correct sentence is worth as much as a graceful one.
Question 5
Which objective is being tested by: “Explain what the writer suggests about the narrator’s feelings towards her father”?
A R1 — explicit meanings
B R2 — implicit meanings and attitudes
C R5 — select and use information
D R3 — analyse, evaluate and develop
The word suggests is the giveaway. The answer will not be a sentence you can point to; it will be an inference you draw from word choice, from behaviour, or from what is left unsaid. Answer it in the shape “the writer suggests X, because Y” — the inference first, the evidence second.
Question 6
What should you do in the first four minutes of the exam?
A Read all four questions, including sub-questions and word limits, before reading the insert
B Start writing Question 1 immediately to bank time
C Read Text A twice
D Plan the Question 4 response in full
Reading the questions first converts your reading of the insert from browsing into searching. You cannot annotate Text B for the summary focus if you do not yet know what the focus is, and you will otherwise underline things generally — which is the single most wasted activity in reading time.
Question 7
Under the 2027 syllabus, how are the words tested by the 2-mark vocabulary questions marked in Text C?
A They are italicised
B They are listed at the end of the insert
C They are printed in capitals
D They are printed in bold
The old specification underlined them; the new one uses bold. Practically, this is a gift: as you read Text C the bold words jump out, and each one is the paper announcing in advance that a 2-mark question is coming about that exact word.
Question 8
Why is doing Question 2(b) before Question 2(a) usually sensible?
A Because 2(b) is worth more marks
B Because the mark scheme requires questions in that order
C Because 2(b) is five quick marks that would otherwise get squeezed by the summary
D Because 2(b) is about Text C and 2(a) is about Text B
The summary expands to fill whatever time it is given — harvesting, drafting, counting, cutting. If 2(b) is still waiting when the summary finishes, it gets ninety rushed seconds. Banking those five marks first costs nothing, because you have just read Text B closely anyway.
2. Question 1 — Comprehension, 20 marks ▼

What Question 1 is

Question 1 is a run of short sub-questions on Text A, labelled (a), (b), (c) and so on, worth between one and about five marks each and adding up to twenty. There is no essay here and no continuous writing. Nobody is marking your style. What is being tested is whether you can read carefully and answer precisely, and the two things being tested are named in the syllabus as R1, explicit meanings and R2, implicit meanings and attitudes.

Students routinely treat this question as the warm-up. It is not the warm-up. It is a fifth of the paper, it is the most gettable twenty marks in the whole of Paper 1, and it is where careless candidates leak four or five marks without ever noticing, because nothing feels wrong while it is happening.

“What does it say” versus “what does it suggest”

Every sub-question in Question 1 is one of two kinds, and the wording tells you which. Getting this distinction into your bones is worth more than anything else in this section.

Explicit (R1)Implicit (R2)
Question wordsGive… / Identify… / What does the writer say… / According to the text… / State two reasons…Suggest… / Imply… / What impression… / Explain what the writer suggests about… / Why do you think…
Where the answer isOn the page. You are locating it.Between the lines. You are inferring it.
Shape of your answerThe fact, in your own words. One clause is often enough.The inference, then the evidence: “X, because the text says Y.”
Most common failureCopying a whole sentence instead of extracting the point.Repeating the detail and calling it an explanation.

Here is the difference in one pair of sentences. Suppose the text says: She had made the beds already.

Answer to an implicit question — but only explicit
The grandmother had already made the beds before they arrived.
Answer to an implicit question — genuinely implicit
She was looking forward to the visit more than she was prepared to admit: she had told them on the telephone that she was too old to make beds, and then made them anyway.
The test: could a reader who has not read the text learn something new from your sentence? The left-hand answer only tells them what happened. The right-hand answer tells them what it means — and it does so by putting two details next to each other, which is where implicit meaning almost always hides.

How mark allocation tells you how many points to make

Every sub-question carries its instructions in the brackets. Read the number of marks as a shopping list, not as a guide to length.

  • [1] — one point. A phrase. Not a sentence, if a phrase will do.
  • [2] — either two separate points, or one point plus a supporting detail. If the question says “give two”, give exactly two, clearly separated. Numbering them or starting a new line is a kindness to the examiner and costs nothing.
  • [3] — three points, or two points with development. This is where students under-answer most often: they make one good observation, write three sentences about it, and score one.
  • [4] or [5] — a small cluster. Usually an implicit question wanting two or three inferences, each briefly supported. Now you are writing a short paragraph, but still not an introduction.
⚠ Exam tip

Marks measure ideas, not words. A three-mark answer that contains one idea explained beautifully three times scores one. A three-mark answer that contains three ideas stated flatly scores three. When you finish a sub-question, do not ask “is that enough writing?” Ask “how many separate things have I said?” and count them on your fingers against the mark in the bracket.

And always give one more than you need on “explain” questions where no number is specified. If a question is worth 3 and you have three points, a fourth costs you fifteen seconds and insures you against one of the first three being rejected. This does not apply where the question says “give two” — there, the examiner marks the first two only, so a third is wasted ink and a wrong third can do no good.

Own words versus lifting

“Lifting” means copying words straight from the text into your answer. It is not banned. It is not, in itself, a crime. But it is a habit that ranges from harmless to fatal depending on how much you lift, and the rule is simpler than most students think:

The rule
Lift the noun. Never lift the sentence.
Why A proper noun, a technical term or a concrete object has no synonym — writing “the harbour wall” is not lifting, it is naming. But if the words that carry the meaning are the text’s words, you have not shown that you understood them.
Test Cover the text. Can you still write the answer? If not, you are copying, not comprehending.

Why lifting a whole sentence usually scores zero. Imagine a two-mark question asking why the narrator was surprised. The text contains a sentence which happens to include the answer, wrapped in three other details. A candidate copies the whole sentence. Now look at it from the examiner’s side of the desk: the candidate has demonstrated that they can find the general area of the answer and operate a pen. They have not demonstrated that they know which part of the sentence answers the question — and that is precisely the thing being marked. Cambridge examiners describe this as the answer not being “disentangled” from the text. Wholesale lifting is treated as a failure to select, and it scores nothing even though the correct words are physically present on the page.

There is a second reason to avoid it, which matters even more. A lifted sentence often contains material that contradicts or over-reaches the answer. If the examiner has to decide which half of your copied sentence you meant, the convention is not to guess in your favour.

Remember this

Find it, then flip it. Find the words in the text. Cover them with your finger. Say the idea out loud in a different way. Write that down. Three seconds, and it converts a lifted answer into a scoring one.

Text A

Here is an invented Text A written in the register Cambridge uses for the first insert text — first-person narrative, quiet, full of implication. Read it once, then work through the sub-questions underneath before opening the answers.

The Quiet Coast
My grandmother met us at the harbour wall, though the ferry was two hours late and the wind had come round to the north. She had not written to say she would come. She stood with her coat buttoned to the throat and her hands pushed up inside the sleeves, and when my mother reached her she looked first at the suitcases and only afterwards, briefly, at me. “You have brought a great deal,” she said. The house was three streets up and smelled of paraffin and drying wool. She had made the beds already, which surprised me, because she had told my mother on the telephone that she was too old to be making beds for visitors. In my room there were flowers in a jam jar on the windowsill, cut short so that they would not tip over, and a chair set where the light was best.

Five worked sub-questions

These are written in the style and mark distribution of a real Question 1: a couple of quick explicit questions, a couple of implicit ones, and one longer cluster at the end. Attempt each before you open it. Answering in your head does not count — write it.

1(a) Give two details about the conditions when the family arrived. [2]
Model answer

1. The ferry arrived two hours behind schedule.
2. The wind had shifted to the north.

Why it scores

Two points, numbered, separated, each in slightly different words from the text. Nothing else is added. It took about twenty seconds. This is what a two-mark explicit question is supposed to look like — it is not an opportunity to write well, it is an opportunity to be quick and right.

What loses marks here: writing “the ferry was two hours late and the wind had come round to the north” as a single copied clause is probably still creditworthy, because both required facts are visible and separable — but it is a bad habit that will cost you on the next question. Worse: giving three or four details. The examiner marks the first two, so if your first answer is wrong the correct third does not rescue you.
1(b) Using your own words, explain what the description of the grandmother standing at the harbour wall — “her coat buttoned to the throat and her hands pushed up inside the sleeves” — tells the reader. [2]
Model answer

She has been standing outside in the cold for a long time and has fastened herself up against it — she has clearly been waiting far longer than she needed to. It also makes her look closed off and self-contained, as though she is holding herself in as much as keeping the weather out.

Why it scores

Two distinct ideas for two marks: duration of the wait (which is really an act of affection, since nobody asked her to come) and emotional guardedness. Both are inferences, and both are anchored to the detail without repeating it. Notice that the answer never uses the words “buttoned” or “sleeves”.

The trap: “It tells us that she was cold.” True, and worth almost nothing, because it is the literal content of the detail rather than what the detail tells the reader. When a question says “tells the reader” or “suggests”, the answer must be something the text has not already said.
1(c) Explain why the narrator was surprised that the beds had been made. [3]
Model answer

Her grandmother had told them beforehand, over the telephone, that she was past the age of preparing rooms for guests, so the narrator had arrived expecting to have to do it herself. Doing it anyway contradicts what she had announced. It suggests that the complaint was a kind of performance, and that she wanted them there rather more than she had let on.

Why it scores

Three marks, three moves. (1) The stated expectation — she said she would not. (2) The contradiction — she did. (3) The inference — the complaint was not sincere and the welcome is warmer than the words. Most candidates supply (1) and stop, because (1) feels like a complete answer to “why was she surprised”. It is one mark of three.

Pattern to steal: when a text sets up an expectation and then breaks it, the mark is almost never for spotting the break. It is for saying what the break reveals. Expectation → contradiction → what that tells us. Three sentences, three marks.
1(d) Re-read the last sentence of the extract. Using your own words, explain what the writer suggests about the grandmother by describing the flowers and the chair. [4]
Model answer

The flowers were picked and put out specially, which shows she had gone to trouble for a granddaughter she barely greeted at the harbour. Trimming the stems short so the jar could not tip over shows she had thought several steps ahead about a room she would not be sleeping in. Positioning the chair in the best light means she had been in the room, stood in it, and worked out where somebody would want to sit. Taken together, these are the actions of someone whose affection is expressed by preparation rather than by anything she is willing to say out loud.

Why it scores

Four marks are being paid for four separable observations: the flowers as an act of welcome; the short stems as forethought; the chair as evidence she imagined the room being used; and the summarising inference about a woman who shows feeling through practical care rather than words. The final sentence is what lifts the answer from good to complete — it is the only one that answers “what does the writer suggest about the grandmother” rather than “what did the grandmother do”.

A four-mark implicit question is a paragraph, not an essay. Around eighty words here. No introduction, no “in this extract the writer uses…”, no device names. Just four things noticed, in order, in your own words.
1(e) Using your own words, explain what the extract suggests about the relationship between the grandmother and the narrator. Support your answer with three details from the text. [5]
Model answer

The relationship is affectionate but unspoken, and the affection runs mainly in one direction on the surface while the narrator watches for it underneath. When they finally meet, the grandmother inspects the luggage before she looks at her granddaughter, and even then only for a moment — on the face of it a cold greeting. Her one remark is a criticism of how much they have brought rather than any word of welcome. Yet she has come uninvited to a harbour in a north wind for a ferry that is two hours late, and she has arranged a room down to the height of the flowers and the placing of a chair. The narrator notices all of this, which suggests she is used to reading her grandmother indirectly and has learned to take the preparations as the welcome that was never said.

Why it scores

Five marks. The answer opens with a clear claim about the relationship — affectionate but unspoken — and then supports it with the three required details, each converted into own words and each turned into a point rather than left as a fact. It closes by bringing the narrator back in, because the question asked about a relationship, which needs two people in the answer.

The commonest way to lose two of these five marks: writing only about the grandmother. Read the noun in the question. “Relationship” means the answer has to say something about how the narrator regards her too — and the evidence for that is simply that she notices the flowers at all.

A checklist for Question 1

  • Did I answer every sub-question, including the tiny [1] at the bottom of the page?
  • For each one, do the number of separate ideas in my answer match the number in the bracket?
  • Where the question said “give two”, did I give exactly two?
  • Where it said “in your own words”, is there any lifted phrase longer than three or four words?
  • On the “suggests” questions, does each answer contain something the text does not literally say?
  • Have I written any introductions, any “the writer uses…”, or any device names? Cross them out; they earn nothing here.
  • Am I within my 22 minutes?
⚠ Exam tip

Question 1 is where you buy time for Question 4. An efficient candidate finishes it in eighteen minutes with full marks; an inefficient one takes thirty and scores fifteen, because the extra twelve minutes went on sentences nobody was marking. The way to be efficient is not to write faster. It is to stop writing the moment the ideas in the bracket are on the page.

Practice Questions: Question 1 Comprehension
8 multiple choice questions. Click an option to check your answer.
Your Score 0 / 8
Question 1
A sub-question is worth [3]. Your answer contains one strong idea, expressed three times in three well-written sentences. What is it likely to score?
A 3, because the answer is thorough and well expressed
B 1, because marks are awarded for separate ideas, not for length
C 0, because repetition is penalised
D 2, because effort is rewarded
Mark allocations are a shopping list of ideas. Three marks means the mark scheme has at least three creditable points listed, and it awards one per point found. Elaborating a single point is not the same as making three, and on Question 1 nobody is marking the quality of your prose — the writing marks on this paper live only in 2(a) and Question 4.
Question 2
Which of these question stems is testing implicit meaning (R2)?
A “Give two reasons why the ferry was delayed.”
B “According to the text, where is the house?”
C “Explain what the writer suggests about the grandmother’s feelings.”
D “Identify the smell in the house.”
Suggests is the flag. Explicit stems — give, identify, state, according to the text — ask you to locate. Implicit stems — suggests, implies, what impression, why do you think — ask you to infer something the text has not said. Answer these in the shape “inference, because evidence”.
Question 3
Why does copying a whole sentence from the text usually score nothing, even when the correct answer is inside it?
A Because you have not shown which part of the sentence answers the question
B Because copying is against exam regulations
C Because handwriting the text takes too long
D Because the examiner cannot read quotations
Examiners call this failing to “disentangle” the answer. The skill being marked is selection — knowing which words carry the meaning. A wholesale lift proves you found the right paragraph, which is not the same thing. It is also risky: a copied sentence often contains material that contradicts your answer, and the examiner will not choose the reading that helps you.
Question 4
Which of these is safe to take word-for-word from the text?
A The writer’s description of a character’s feelings
B The clause that explains why something happened
C An adjective that carries the implication you are being asked about
D A concrete noun with no real synonym, such as “the harbour wall”
Lift the noun; never lift the sentence. Naming a thing that has no synonym is not lifting — nobody expects you to invent a word for a harbour wall. What you must convert are the words carrying the meaning: the verbs, the adjectives, the causal clauses. If covering the text would stop you writing the answer, you are copying.
Question 5
A question says “Give two reasons… [2]” and you supply four, one of which is wrong. What normally happens?
A All four are considered and the best two are credited
B You lose a mark for the wrong one
C The examiner marks the first two only, so a wrong first answer is not rescued by a correct third
D The answer is void because you exceeded the instruction
When a number is specified, the convention is to mark that number of responses in the order given. Extra answers are neither credited nor penalised — they are simply ignored, which means the time spent writing them is gone. Where no number is specified on an “explain” question, adding one spare point is good insurance.
Question 6
“The description tells us that she was cold.” As an answer to “what does this description tell the reader”, this is weak because:
A It is factually wrong
B It restates the literal content instead of drawing an inference
C It is too short to earn a mark
D It does not quote the text
If your sentence could be replaced by the original detail with nothing lost, you have paraphrased rather than interpreted. The useful test: would a reader who has not seen the text learn something new from your sentence? “She had been waiting far longer than she needed to” passes that test; “she was cold” does not.
Question 7
Where in a text does implicit meaning most often hide?
A In two details placed next to each other, in word choice, and in what is left unsaid
B In the first and last sentences only
C In the title and the byline
D In any sentence containing a simile
Contradiction is the richest source of all: a character says one thing and does another, as when the grandmother announces she is too old to make beds and then makes them. Whenever a text sets up an expectation and breaks it, the mark is for saying what the break reveals — not for spotting it.
Question 8
What is the best use of the roughly 22 minutes allocated to Question 1?
A Writing an introduction so the examiner knows your approach
B Answering the high-mark sub-questions and skipping the one-markers
C Producing well-crafted continuous prose throughout
D Answering every sub-question as briefly as the mark allocation allows, then stopping
There are no style marks anywhere in Question 1, so a graceful sentence is worth exactly what a plain one is. Every minute you spend polishing here is stolen from Question 4, where ten of the marks genuinely are for writing. Finish early and bank the time — that is the whole strategy.
3. Question 2 — Summary and Attitudes, 20 marks ▼

Two parts, twenty marks, one text

Question 2 is set on Text B and comes in two pieces:

PartTaskLengthMarks
2(a)Selective summary, in your own words, as continuous writingNo more than 120 words10 reading (R5) + 5 writing (AO2)
2(b)Short answer on attitudes and opinionsShort answer — a few sentences5 reading (R2)

The summary is the most mechanical task on the whole paper, and mechanical is good news: it means there is a procedure, the procedure works every time, and once you own it the marks stop being uncertain. What makes it feel hard is that it asks you to do the opposite of everything else school has trained you to do. No examples. No quotations. No opinions. No introduction. No flourish. Just points, densely packed, in your own words, in flowing prose, and then stop.

Read the mark split again: 10 reading, 5 writing. Two thirds of the marks are simply for how many relevant points you found and expressed. That is the priority order. A summary with nine points written plainly beats a summary with five points written elegantly, every single time. Get the content in, then make it flow — never the other way round.

The method — four steps, in this order, always

  1. Read the question’s exact focus, and write it at the top of your rough work. The question will not say “summarise Text B”. It will say something narrow: the difficulties the volunteers face, or the benefits of the scheme, or what the writer did and why. Copy that focus phrase onto your answer booklet in three or four words. Every decision you make for the next twenty minutes is settled by that phrase. If you find yourself unsure whether a point belongs, you are not unsure — you have stopped looking at the phrase.
  2. Harvest, numbering as you go. Go through Text B once, slowly, from the top. Every time you meet something that answers the focus, put a number in the margin. Do not write anything out yet. Do not stop to think about wording. You are looking for separate points: two sentences about the same difficulty are one point, not two. Expect to find between eight and twelve. If you have found three, you have misread the focus; if you have found twenty, you are counting details rather than points.
  3. Convert each number into your own words — as a short phrase, not a sentence. Beside each number write four or five words of your own. “Banks privately owned — slow permission.” “Grant only lasts a year.” This is the step everyone skips, and skipping it is why lifted summaries happen: if you go straight from the text to your final sentence, the text’s words are still in your ear and they come out of your pen. Converting in note form breaks the connection.
  4. Join the notes into continuous prose, counting as you go. Now write, using your notes and not the text — ideally with the insert closed or turned face down. Link points with commas, semicolons, and joining words like and, while, because, although. Group related points into the same sentence so the connectives do double duty. Count your words at the end. If you are over 120, cut whole clauses rather than trimming adjectives.
Remember this

Focus → Harvest → Convert → Join. Four steps, and the middle two are the ones people skip. Harvesting without converting produces a lifted summary. Converting without harvesting produces a summary that misses half the points because you wrote up the first three before finding the rest.

What a summary must never contain

  • No quotations. Not one. Quotation marks in a summary are a signal to the examiner that you have stopped summarising.
  • No examples. If the text says the group has removed “bicycles, traffic cones and a filing cabinet”, the point is that they remove large dumped items. The list is illustration, and illustration is exactly what a summary strips out.
  • No comment, opinion or evaluation. “This shows how dedicated they are” is your voice, and your voice has no marks attached in 2(a).
  • No introduction or conclusion. “In this text the writer describes many difficulties which I will now summarise” is fourteen of your 120 words spent saying nothing. Start with the first point.
  • No repetition of the question. Same reason.
  • No bullet points or numbered lists. The instruction says continuous writing, and the five writing marks are largely for whether it reads as connected prose.

Text B

An invented Text B, in the register Cambridge uses for the second insert text — a short feature article with a named interviewee, plenty of separate factual points, and a strong personality behind the quotations.

The River Menders
Every Sunday since March, a dozen people in borrowed waders have been pulling shopping trolleys out of the Ravensbeck. Their coordinator, Marjorie Okonjo, is brisk about the difficulties. Permission comes first: almost every stretch of bank is privately owned, and a single landowner can take four months to answer a letter. Money comes second. The group’s grant is renewed annually, so each autumn she writes the same application and waits. The council charges for every skip they fill, and they fill a great many. Then there is the work itself. Submerged metal and broken glass make the riverbed treacherous, and volunteers must be trained and insured before they are allowed into the water — paperwork that Okonjo describes as heroic in scale. Nesting birds close the upper reaches from March until August, compressing the season; rain closes it further. Hardest of all, she says, is keeping people. The first month is exciting. The ninth is cold and wet, and most of those still turning up are over sixty. And the trolleys come back: within a fortnight of a clearance, fresh rubbish appears at the same bend. She is unsentimental about all of it. “People imagine kingfishers,” she says. “Mostly it is mud, and forms, and doing the same stretch again.” She has no intention of stopping.
Question 2(a)

According to Text B, what difficulties do the volunteers face? Write a summary using your own words. Use no more than 120 words. [15]

Step 2 and 3: the harvest table

This is what your rough work should look like — the point located, then converted into a note in your own words before you write a single sentence of the answer. Notice how short the right-hand column is. Notes, not sentences.

#Where it is in Text BYour note (own words)
1Almost every stretch of bank is privately ownedLand is private — must ask owners
2A landowner can take four months to answer a letterPermission is very slow to arrive
3The grant is renewed annually; she reapplies each autumnFunding lasts one year only; constant reapplying
4The council charges for every skip they fillThey must pay to dispose of what they collect
5Submerged metal and broken glassRiverbed is physically dangerous
6Volunteers must be trained and insured; “heroic” paperworkCompulsory training, insurance, heavy admin
7Nesting birds close the upper reaches March–AugustWorking season is short
8Rain closes it furtherWeather cuts available days
9The first month is exciting, the ninth is coldHard to keep volunteers interested
10Most still turning up are over sixtyFew younger helpers
11Fresh rubbish appears within a fortnightWork is quickly undone

Eleven points, and only 120 words. That is roughly eleven words per point including all the joining language, which sounds impossible until you look at the model below. It is possible because summary prose is compressed: several points share a single sentence, and the connective between them does the work of a whole clause.

⚠ Exam tip

Points 1 and 2 above could reasonably be treated as one point, and so could 7 and 8. That is fine. Mark schemes list far more creditable points than you can fit, precisely because they expect you to combine. Never agonise over whether two adjacent details are one point or two — write them in the same sentence and let the examiner decide. Combining costs you almost no words and can only gain.

The model summary

The volunteers work on a river whose banks are almost all in private hands, and owners can take months to grant access. Their funding is only ever guaranteed for a year, so a fresh application is needed annually, and the local authority charges for removing what they collect. Entering the water is dangerous because of hidden metal and glass, so everyone must first be trained and insured, which generates a great deal of administration. The working year is short: nesting birds close the upper river from spring until late summer, and wet weather shortens it further. Recruits lose enthusiasm after the first few weeks, most of those who stay are elderly, and fresh rubbish returns within a fortnight.

118 words. Under the limit, no quotations, no examples, no opinion, no introduction, and every clause is doing work. Nine or ten of the eleven harvested points are in there. Read it aloud: it moves, but nothing in it is decorative.

The classic failures

Failure 1 — copying
Permission comes first: almost every stretch of bank is privately owned, and a single landowner can take four months to answer a letter. Money comes second. The group’s grant is renewed annually, so each autumn she writes the same application and waits.
Fixed
Access must be negotiated with private landowners, who are often extremely slow to reply, and the group’s money is only ever secure for twelve months, so the same application has to be submitted every year.
Why the left version is fatal: it is the text, not a summary of it. R5 asks you to select and use information, and reproducing the paragraph demonstrates neither. It also wastes words: 43 words to make three points, where the fixed version makes the same three in 34 and sounds like a person.
Failure 2 — material outside the focus
The volunteers meet every Sunday and have been working since March, wearing borrowed waders. They are led by Marjorie Okonjo. They pull shopping trolleys out of the river, and Okonjo says that people imagine kingfishers when they think about the work.
Fixed
The riverbed is hazardous, with hidden metal and glass, so everyone must be trained and insured first; the paperwork this generates is enormous, and the season is short because nesting birds close the upper river.
Why the left version scores near zero: every sentence is accurate and none of it answers the question, which was about difficulties. Meeting on Sundays is not a difficulty. Having a coordinator is not a difficulty. This is the single most common way to fail 2(a), and the cause is always the same: the candidate summarised the text instead of answering the question.
Failure 3 — a list, not continuous writing
The difficulties are: 1. Private land. 2. Slow permission. 3. Annual funding. 4. Skip charges. 5. Dangerous riverbed. 6. Training and insurance. 7. Short season. 8. Rain. 9. Losing volunteers. 10. Ageing helpers. 11. Rubbish returns.
Fixed
Access is slow and the land is private; funding is renewed only yearly and disposal is charged for; the riverbed is dangerous, so training and insurance are required; and the season is cut short by nesting birds and by rain.
What the left version costs: most of the reading points are actually there, so it will not score zero — but the five writing marks are gone almost entirely, because the task says continuous writing and this is a list with numbers on it. Five marks is a third of the question. The fix takes ninety seconds: put the notes into sentences with connectives.
Failure 4 — running over the limit
…a 175-word summary containing all eleven points, plus an opening sentence explaining what is about to be summarised and a closing sentence saying how impressive the volunteers are.
Fixed
Delete the opening sentence, delete the closing sentence, delete every example, and merge each pair of adjacent points into one sentence. The eleven points survive. The 55 surplus words do not.
What happens if you go over 120: the instruction is not decorative. Examiners are directed to reward what is within the limit and to stop reading — or to treat the excess as unrewarded — once it is passed. Everything you wrote after word 120 was unpaid labour, and if your best points were at the end, they simply were not read. Count. Every time. It takes forty seconds.

Question 2(b) — attitudes and opinions, 5 marks

The second half of Question 2 is short, and it is testing R2: implicit meanings and attitudes. It will ask something like “What are Okonjo’s attitudes towards the work?” or “Explain the writer’s opinions about the scheme, using your own words.”

The trick is to understand what an attitude is. An attitude is not a fact and it is not an action. It is a stance — a settled way of feeling about something. So your answer should be built from words that name stances: impatient, sceptical, proud, resigned, defensive, wry, unsentimental, determined, contemptuous, protective, ambivalent. If your answer contains none of that kind of vocabulary, you have described behaviour rather than attitude.

The shape of a 2(b) answer
Name the attitude. Point to what shows it. Move to the next one.
Why Five marks usually means three to five distinct attitudes, each briefly evidenced. It does not mean one attitude discussed at length.
Watch Attitudes can be found in a speaker’s tone, in what they choose to mention first, in what they refuse to say, and in the writer’s framing of them — not only in direct quotations.
2(b) Using your own words, explain what Text B suggests about Marjorie Okonjo’s attitudes towards the work. [5]
Model answer

She is thoroughly unromantic about what the project involves, listing the obstacles briskly and putting the mud and the forms ahead of anything picturesque. There is a note of dry humour in the way she exaggerates the scale of the paperwork, which suggests she has made peace with irritations she cannot change. She is impatient with outsiders who picture the work as scenic, and slightly protective of the reality. She is clear-eyed about failure — she volunteers, rather than conceals, the fact that the rubbish comes straight back. And underneath all of it she is stubbornly committed: knowing every one of these problems, she still has no intention of giving up.

Why it scores

Five marks, five named attitudes, each with a short piece of evidence attached and none of them repeated. Around 115 words — roughly twenty-five seconds of writing per mark. Note that only two of the five come from what she actually says; the rest come from how the writer presents her, which is where most of the available marks in an attitudes question are hiding.

The weak version of this answer: “She thinks the work is hard. She says there is a lot of paperwork and that the rubbish comes back. She is going to carry on.” Three sentences, all accurate, all about what she said rather than how she feels about it. That scores one or two at most.
  • Have I written the question’s focus phrase at the top of my rough work?
  • Did I number points in the margin of the insert before writing anything?
  • Did I convert every point into a note in my own words before drafting?
  • Is my summary continuous prose — no bullets, no numbers, no dashes standing in for sentences?
  • Are there any quotation marks in it? Any examples? Any opinions of mine?
  • Have I actually counted the words, and is the number at or under 120?
  • In 2(b), does every sentence name an attitude rather than restate an action?
Practice Questions: Question 2 Summary and Attitudes
8 multiple choice questions. Click an option to check your answer.
Your Score 0 / 8
Question 1
How are the 15 marks for Question 2(a) divided?
A 15 for writing quality
B 5 reading and 10 writing
C 10 reading and 5 writing
D It varies from paper to paper
Ten of the fifteen are reading marks, awarded for the number of relevant points you have selected and expressed in your own words. Only five are for the writing. That ratio dictates your priorities: coverage first, fluency second. A plain summary with nine points beats a graceful one with five.
Question 2
What is the word limit on the 2(a) summary, and what happens if you exceed it?
A 150 words; the excess is marked but capped
B 100 words; you lose one mark per ten words over
C There is no limit, only a guideline
D 120 words; material beyond the limit is effectively not rewarded
No more than 120 words. The limit is an instruction, not advice, and points made after it are not credited. This is why counting matters so much: if your last three points are in words 121 to 160, you did the reading, did the thinking, and got paid for none of it.
Question 3
Which of these belongs in a selective summary?
A A short quotation to prove you found the point
B A point converted into your own words
C An example illustrating one of the points
D A closing sentence saying what you think of the scheme
A summary contains points and nothing else — no quotations, no examples, no evaluation, no introduction or conclusion. Illustration is the first thing summarising strips out: if the text lists three dumped objects, the point is that large items are dumped, and the list is the detail you delete.
Question 4
You are unsure whether a point belongs in the summary. What should you check?
A The exact focus phrase in the question
B Whether the point is interesting
C Whether it appears in the first half of the text
D Whether you can express it in your own words
Uncertainty about relevance is almost always a sign that you have stopped looking at the focus. Write the focus phrase — three or four words — at the top of your rough work, and treat it as the only test. An accurate, interesting point that does not answer that phrase costs you twice: once for being wrong, once for the words it stole.
Question 5
Why should you convert each harvested point into a note in your own words before drafting?
A Because notes are marked separately
B To make sure you have found enough points
C Because the mark scheme requires rough work
D Because writing straight from the text leaves the writer’s wording in your ear, and it comes out of your pen
This is the step nearly everyone skips and the reason most lifted summaries happen. Converting in note form — four or five words each — breaks the link with the original phrasing. When you draft, work from your notes with the insert turned face down, and lifting becomes almost impossible.
Question 6
A candidate writes a numbered list of eleven accurate difficulties. What is the likely outcome?
A Full marks, since all the points are present
B Zero, because the answer is not in prose
C Most of the 10 reading marks, but almost none of the 5 writing marks
D The answer is disqualified for not following instructions
The reading marks are for the points and they are visibly there. The five writing marks, however, are largely for producing connected, continuous prose, and a numbered list is by definition not that. Five marks is a third of the question, recoverable in ninety seconds by joining the notes with connectives.
Question 7
What is Question 2(b) testing?
A R5, selecting information for a purpose
B R2, implicit meanings and attitudes
C R4, how writers achieve effects
D AO2 writing
2(b) is a five-mark R2 question about attitudes and opinions. An attitude is a settled stance, not an action — so your answer should be built from words like wry, resigned, impatient, protective, unsentimental, determined. If none of that vocabulary appears, you have described what somebody did rather than how they feel.
Question 8
In a 5-mark attitudes question, which answer is stronger?
A Five briefly evidenced attitudes, each named
B One attitude explored in depth over five sentences
C A list of everything the speaker says, in order
D A summary of the speaker’s life and background
Five marks usually means roughly five creditable attitudes on the mark scheme. Depth is not what is being paid for here — range is. And remember that attitudes are often carried by the writer’s framing, by tone, by what a speaker mentions first and what they refuse to say, not only by the sentences inside quotation marks.
4. Question 3 — Short Answers and the Language Task, 20 marks ▼

Two halves, ten marks each

Question 3 is set on Text C, the most carefully written text on the insert, and it splits cleanly in two:

PartTaskObjectiveMarks
3(i)Short-answer questions of varied length, including 2-mark questions on the meaning of words printed in boldR1 and R210
3(ii)Language task: how the writer uses language to convey meaning and create effect. 200–250 wordsR410

Do them in order. 3(i) makes you read Text C closely at the level of individual words, which is exactly the state of mind you need for 3(ii). Doing the language task first and then coming back to the short answers wastes a warm-up you have already paid for.

Text C

An invented Text C, in the register Cambridge uses for the third insert text — descriptive first-person non-fiction, deliberately written, with vocabulary worth stopping on. Three words are printed in bold, exactly as they would be on your insert.

Ninety Degrees South of Everything
The plane put us down on the ice and was gone again within nine minutes; nobody wanted to risk the skis freezing to the surface. After that there was only the sound of our own breathing, which the cold made brittle, and a wind arriving in long grey sheets. The station stood a kilometre off — four huts on stilts, hunched together like wading birds in shallow water. Between us and them lay a plain so featureless that distance stopped meaning anything. The huts refused to grow any larger for twenty minutes, and then arrived all at once. Inside, the warmth was almost an assault. Somebody had left a radio muttering to itself in a corner. Frost had colonised the inner face of the window in a spread of white ferns, thickening towards the corners, and the whole hut smelled of diesel and old coffee and wet rope. Dr Farrow shook my hand without taking off her glove. She had wintered here twice. When I asked her what the hardest part was, she considered the question for so long that I thought she had not heard it. “The light,” she said at last. “Not the dark. Everybody prepares for the dark.”

3(i): the short answers

These behave exactly like the sub-questions in Question 1 — brief, precise, worth one to four marks each, half of them explicit and half of them implicit. Everything in Section 2 of this guide applies. What is new here is the type of question that Cambridge builds around the bold words, and it needs its own instructions.

The 2-mark bold-word questions

When you meet a word in bold in Text C, the paper is telling you in advance that a question is coming about that exact word. It will be phrased something like:

Typical wording

Using your own words, explain what the writer means by “colonised” in the third paragraph. [2]

Under the old specification these words were underlined. Under the 2027 specification they are bold. The task is identical, and so is the single most important instruction about it:

The rule that decides these two marks
Give the meaning as used in this sentence, not the dictionary meaning.
Because The examiner is testing whether you understood the writer’s choice, not whether you own a dictionary. A definition that would be correct in any other context and is wrong in this one scores nothing.
Method Cover the bold word with your finger. Read the sentence with a gap in it. Now write the word or phrase you would put in the gap so that the sentence still means what it meant.

Why two marks and not one. A two-mark word question is almost always looking for two things: the core sense of the word, and the extra flavour it carries here — the connotation, the implication, the thing a plainer synonym would lose. One mark for each. That is the whole architecture of the question, and once you know it you should never write a one-clause answer to a two-mark word question again.

3(i)(a) Explain, using your own words, what the writer means by “brittle” in the first paragraph. [2]
Model answer

Their breathing sounded thin, hard and sharp-edged rather than soft, as though the cold had drained the moisture out of the sound. The word also suggests fragility — something that could snap — which makes their breathing, and by extension the people themselves, seem easily broken in that place.

Why it scores 2

Mark 1: the core sense, transferred correctly — hard, dry, sharp, not soft. Mark 2: the connotation — brittle things break, so the word imports fragility and vulnerability. Notice the answer never says “easily shattered, like glass” and stops. That is the dictionary, and on its own it does not explain what breathing has to do with glass.

One-mark version: “Brittle means easily broken.” Correct, and half an answer. It defines the word without touching the sentence it is in.
3(i)(b) Explain, using your own words, what the writer means by “muttering” in the third paragraph. [2]
Model answer

The radio was producing a low, continuous, indistinct noise that nobody was listening to or could make out. Because muttering is something people do, the word also makes the radio sound faintly human and slightly resentful, talking on to itself in an empty room, which quietly reinforces how few people there are in the building.

Why it scores 2

Mark 1: the sound itself — quiet, unbroken, unclear, unattended. Mark 2: the personification and what it implies. The second half is where nearly all the lost marks on these questions live, because candidates answer “what does the word mean” and forget that the question is really “what does the word do here”.

The phrase “to itself” is doing as much work as the bold word, and a good answer notices that. You are always allowed to look at the words on either side.
3(i)(c) Explain, using your own words, what the writer means by “colonised” in the third paragraph. [2]
Model answer

The frost had gradually spread across the whole inner surface of the glass and taken it over completely. The word belongs to invasion and settlement, so it presents the ice as an active occupying force rather than as weather: the cold is not merely outside the hut, it has got in and is claiming territory, which makes the shelter feel far less secure than the warmth first suggested.

Why it scores 2

Mark 1: spread over and taken possession of. Mark 2: the imported idea of invasion and occupation, and the consequence — the inside is not as safe as it looked. This is a strong example of why the dictionary is not enough: “colonised means settled in a place” is technically right and misses everything.

A pattern worth learning: when a writer applies a word from one field (war, medicine, farming, music) to something in another, the second mark is almost always for naming the borrowed field and saying what it imports. Frost that colonises, warmth that is an assault, huts that are hunched — same move each time.
⚠ Exam tip

Do not write about the effect on the reader in 3(i). Save that for 3(ii). These are meaning questions, and a paragraph about how the word “makes the reader feel cold and isolated” is answering the next question rather than this one. Two crisp sentences per bold word. Then move.

And never leave one blank because you do not know the word. You are not being tested on whether you have met “colonised” before. The sentence around it tells you nearly everything — frost, window, a spread of white ferns, thickening. Even a rough answer built from context will usually pick up one of the two marks. A blank picks up none.

3(ii): the language task

This is the ten-mark question that most students find hardest and that is, in fact, the most formulaic on the paper. The wording will be close to this:

Question 3(ii)

Re-read paragraphs 2 and 3 of Text C. Explain how the writer uses language to convey meaning and to create effect. Choose three examples of words or phrases from each paragraph. Write about 200 to 250 words. [10]

Read that carefully, because it contains four instructions people ignore: re-read these paragraphs (not the whole text), three examples from each (so six in total, evenly split), meaning and effect (two things, not one), and 200 to 250 words (a real limit at both ends).

The paragraph shape that works every time

Four moves, in this order, for every example you choose. Once it is automatic you can write one in about ninety seconds.

  1. Quote the word or phrase — short. Three or four words at most. If you find yourself quoting a whole sentence, you have not decided which bit is doing the work. The quotation is a pointer, not evidence.
  2. Say what it literally means here. Not in general — in this sentence, about this thing. “Hunched” here means the huts are low, close together and slightly stooped. This step feels too obvious to write down. Write it down anyway: it is where the “convey meaning” half of the question is answered, and skipping it is why so many answers score five.
  3. Say what it makes the reader picture or feel. The image, the sensation, the mood. Be specific and physical. Not “it creates a vivid image” — which image? Not “it engages the reader” — the reader is engaged by everything; that sentence says nothing.
  4. Say why the writer wanted that. One clause connecting the effect to what the passage as a whole is doing. This is the move that separates a six from a nine. It sounds like: “…which prepares us for a place where even the buildings look like they are enduring something.”
Remember this

Quote → Means → Makes me see/feel → So that. Four beats. If a paragraph of yours is missing beat two you have written a mood board; if it is missing beat four you have written a description. Both cap around half marks.

Choosing your six examples

Pick words that are doing something a plainer word would not do. The quickest test in the exam room: could you swap the word for the boring equivalent without losing anything? “The station stood a kilometre off” — “stood” is fine but unremarkable, and you cannot write ninety words about it. “Refused to grow any larger” — you cannot replace that without losing the stubbornness, so it is worth choosing.

  • Choose verbs before adjectives. Verbs are where writers hide the good work, and most candidates go straight for adjectives, so verbs are less crowded ground: colonised, refused, arrived, hunched, put us down.
  • Choose anything that treats a thing as if it were alive — the huts hunching, the frost colonising, the radio muttering, the warmth assaulting. These give you a guaranteed second sentence.
  • Choose one phrase per paragraph that is structurally odd — a very short sentence among long ones, a delay, a repetition. Structure counts as language here and hardly anyone uses it.
  • Do not choose a word you cannot say four things about. A beautiful example you have nothing to say about is worth less than an ordinary one you can unpack.

Two model paragraphs, one weak and one strong

Both are written on the same material — paragraph 2 of Text C. Read the weak one first and try to name what is missing before you read the verdict.

Weak — a typical five-out-of-ten paragraph
The writer uses a simile when she says the huts were “hunched together like wading birds in shallow water”. This is a very effective simile which creates a vivid image in the reader’s mind and helps the reader to picture the scene. It makes the description more interesting and engages the reader. The writer also uses the phrase “a plain so featureless that distance stopped meaning anything”, which is a good description of the landscape and shows how empty it is. This makes the reader feel like they are really there. Finally, the writer says the huts “refused to grow any larger for twenty minutes, and then arrived all at once”, which is personification because huts cannot refuse. This is effective and makes the reader want to read on.
Verdict: around 4 or 5 out of 10. Everything in it is true, nothing in it is wrong, and it will not climb. Here is why. It names devices (“simile”, “personification”) but never explains an effect — “vivid image”, “helps the reader picture the scene” and “engages the reader” are the same empty sentence written three times, and they would fit any passage ever written. It never does beat two: not once does it say what a phrase actually means here. It notices the huts cannot refuse but does not ask what refusing implies. And it evaluates rather than analyses — “very effective”, “a good description” — which is the examiner’s job, not yours. It is also 133 words, well short of the 200 minimum, because empty sentences run out quickly.
Strong — a nine-or-ten paragraph on the same material
Describing the huts as “hunched together like wading birds in shallow water” presents them as low, drawn in on themselves and clustered for company. Hunching is what a living thing does against cold or fear, so the buildings are given the posture of survival rather than the shape of shelter, and the comparison with wading birds leaves them looking temporary — things that have landed here and could leave. The plain is “so featureless that distance stopped meaning anything”: there is nothing to measure against, so the eye has no way of judging how far away anything is. What that conveys is not emptiness so much as the failure of an ordinary sense, which is far more unsettling; the reader is put in a place where a skill you never think about has quietly stopped working. That preparation pays off in the last detail of the paragraph, where the huts “refused to grow any larger for twenty minutes, and then arrived all at once”. “Refused” grants the landscape a will of its own and makes the walk feel like a negotiation the narrator is losing, while the sudden arrival after twenty static minutes reproduces, in the shape of the sentence itself, the way perception snaps into place. By the end of the paragraph the reader distrusts their own eyes, which is exactly what the writer needs before taking us inside.
Verdict: 9 or 10. Three examples, each one taken through all four beats. Look at what has vanished: the words “simile”, “personification”, “effective”, “vivid” and “engages the reader” do not appear once, and the analysis is better for it. You are allowed to name devices — but the mark is for the effect, so if you are short of time, write the effect and let the device be implied. Look also at the last sentence: it links the three examples to the purpose of the whole paragraph, which is the single highest-value sentence in the answer. It runs to 231 words, comfortably inside the range.
⚠ Exam tip

Ban five phrases from 3(ii) permanently. “This creates a vivid image.” “This engages the reader.” “This makes the reader want to read on.” “This is very effective.” “This helps the reader to picture the scene.” Each one is a placeholder where an effect should be. If you delete all five from a typical answer, what is left is your real mark — and the honest, slightly panicky feeling of having nothing to write is the beginning of writing something.

Replacement move: after every quotation, force yourself to finish the sentence “so the reader now…” — sees what, hears what, distrusts what, expects what. Specific verbs only.

  • Did I use exactly the paragraphs the question named, and no others?
  • Three examples from each paragraph, evenly split?
  • Is every quotation four words or fewer?
  • Does each example get all four beats — quote, literal meaning here, picture or feeling, writer’s purpose?
  • Have I written “vivid”, “effective” or “engages the reader” anywhere? Replace them.
  • Am I between 200 and 250 words?
  • In 3(i), did the two-mark answers give the meaning in this sentence, plus its flavour?
Practice Questions: Question 3 Short Answers and Language
8 multiple choice questions. Click an option to check your answer.
Your Score 0 / 8
Question 1
Under the 2027 specification, a 2-mark question asks you to explain a word. How is that word marked in Text C?
A It is underlined
B It is italicised
C It is followed by an asterisk
D It is printed in bold
Bold replaced underlining in the revised syllabus. Treat every bold word you meet while reading the insert as an advance warning: a two-mark question is coming about exactly that word, so you can start working out its sense in context before you even turn to the question paper.
Question 2
What kind of meaning should a bold-word answer give?
A The meaning as the word is used in that sentence
B The dictionary definition
C The word’s origin and root
D A list of synonyms
The examiner is testing whether you understood the writer’s choice, not whether you own a dictionary. A definition that would be right in another context and is wrong here scores nothing. The reliable method: cover the word, read the sentence with a gap, and write what you would put in the gap to keep the meaning.
Question 3
Why are these word questions worth 2 marks rather than 1?
A Because they take longer to write
B Because you must quote the sentence as well
C Because they want the core sense and the extra flavour the word carries here
D Because two different words are always tested together
One mark for the plain sense, one for the connotation — the thing a duller synonym would lose. “Colonised means settled in a place” earns one; adding that the word belongs to invasion, and so presents the frost as an occupying force getting inside the hut, earns the second.
Question 4
How long should the language task in 3(ii) be?
A 120 words maximum
B 200 to 250 words
C As long as you need
D 250 to 300 words
200 to 250 words, and the lower bound is as real as the upper one. Under-length answers are almost always under-length because they are full of empty phrases that run out quickly — an answer with genuine analysis of six examples naturally lands in the range without being padded.
Question 5
Which is the missing step in most weak language answers?
A Saying what the word or phrase literally means in that sentence
B Naming the device
C Quoting the text
D Mentioning the reader
Candidates jump from the quotation straight to a claimed effect, skipping the “convey meaning” half of the question. It feels too obvious to write down — and that is exactly why it is missed. Quote, then say what it means here, then the picture or feeling, then the writer’s purpose.
Question 6
“This is a very effective simile which creates a vivid image and engages the reader.” The problem with this sentence is that:
A It is too short
B It should have named the writer
C It uses a quotation incorrectly
D It would fit any passage ever written, so it describes no actual effect
The test for a dead sentence is whether it survives being transplanted into an answer about a completely different text. If it does, it says nothing. Force yourself to finish “so the reader now…” with a specific verb — sees what, hears what, distrusts what, expects what.
Question 7
Which type of word is usually the most rewarding choice for the language task?
A Proper nouns
B Adverbs of time
C Verbs, especially ones that treat an object as if it were alive
D Long adjectives
Most candidates reach for adjectives, so verbs are less crowded ground and are where writers hide their best work. Anything that animates an object — frost that colonises, huts that are hunched, a radio muttering — guarantees you a second and third sentence, because you can always ask what the borrowed idea imports.
Question 8
The question says to re-read paragraphs 2 and 3 and choose three examples from each. You choose five from paragraph 2 and one from paragraph 3. What is the risk?
A None, as long as the analysis is good
B You have not followed the instruction, and half the material the mark scheme covers is untouched
C The answer will be over the word limit
D You will lose marks for quoting too often
The instruction to split examples evenly exists because the mark scheme is built around both paragraphs. Ignoring it leaves whole seams of available credit unmined, and it usually also means you have picked weak examples from your favourite paragraph rather than strong ones from the other.
5. Question 4 — Extended Response to Reading, 20 marks ▼

What the question is

Question 4 is set on Text C, the same text as Question 3, and asks you to write 250 to 300 words in one of six forms: a letter, a report, a journal, a speech, an interview or an article. It is marked out of twenty: 10 for reading (R3) and 10 for writing (AO2).

You will normally be given a persona — you are a character from the text, or a witness, or an official who has read about the events. And you will be given a purpose: advise, explain, persuade, report, reflect.

Question 4 — the task we will work through

You are Dr Farrow, the scientist described in Text C. Six new researchers have arrived who will spend their first winter at the station. Write the words of the speech you give to them on their first evening.

In your speech you should:

• explain what you found hardest about wintering there;
• describe what daily life in the station is actually like;
• give them advice about how to cope.

Base your speech on what you have read in Text C, but be careful to use your own words. Write 250 to 300 words. [20]

The single most important thing about Question 4

Ten of these twenty marks are reading marks, awarded under R3: analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text. The operative word is develop.

This is the question students misunderstand most badly, and the misunderstanding goes in both directions:

Failure A — retelling
The candidate rewrites Text C in the first person. Every idea in the answer is an idea the text already had. This scores well below half on reading, because nothing has been developed — it has only been re-pronouned.
Failure B — inventing
The candidate writes a lively, entirely imagined speech about penguins, frostbite and a heroic rescue. None of it is traceable to Text C. This scores well below half on reading too, because the ideas are not supported from the text.

The target is the narrow strip between those two failures: every idea in your answer should be visibly rooted in Text C and taken somewhere the text did not take it. The text is your starting line, not your finishing line.

The move that earns R3
Take a detail from the text. Ask “and therefore what?” Write the answer.
Text Frost had colonised the inner face of the window.
And therefore Somebody has to scrape it off every morning — and in a hut of six people, whoever admits first that it bothers them will end up doing it forever. So put a rota up on day one.
Result The examiner can see the text underneath (frost, inner window) and can see that you thought past it. One detail, three marks’ worth of development.

Do that with five or six details from Text C and the ten reading marks look after themselves. It is much easier than it sounds, because the question’s bullet points usually tell you which areas of the text to mine.

The six text types

You do not get a choice of form — the question names it. What you do get is credit for sounding like the real thing, and that credit sits in the ten writing marks. Learn this table.

FormOpeningRegisterStructureEnding / sign-off
Letter “Dear Dr Aziz,” then a first line stating why you are writing. Set by who receives it. Formal to a stranger or an official; warm and elliptical to a friend. Reason for writing → the substance in two or three paragraphs → what you want to happen next. “Yours sincerely” (named recipient) or “Yours faithfully” (Dear Sir/Madam). Informal: “With love”. No addresses needed.
Report A title, and often a one-line statement of purpose: “Report on winter staffing at Halstrom Station”. Impersonal, measured, unemotional. Third person mostly. No jokes, no exclamation marks. Sub-headings are welcome. Findings first, then analysis, then recommendations as a short numbered set. A recommendations section, or a single sentence proposing action. No sign-off needed.
Journal Straight in, mid-thought. A date is fine but never necessary. Private, unguarded, reflective. Fragments allowed. Feelings you would not say aloud belong here. Chronological drift is fine, but it should still travel — from what happened to what you now think about it. Unresolved. A journal ends on a thought, a worry or a question, not on a conclusion.
Speech Address the audience in the first line: “Thank you for coming”, “Good evening, all of you”. Spoken, direct, second person. Contractions welcome. Rhetorical questions, lists of three, deliberate short sentences. Signposted: “the first thing”, “the second thing”. An audience cannot turn back a page, so tell them where you are. A memorable last line — short, and pointing forward. Never “thank you for listening” alone.
Interview A one-line introduction of who is being interviewed, then straight into the first question. Two distinct voices. The interviewer is brief and probing; the subject is expansive and reveals character. Alternating Q and A, clearly labelled. Questions should get harder or more personal as it goes on. A closing question that lets the subject say the thing they came to say.
Article A headline, then an opening that hooks — an image, a detail, a startling fact. Lively but controlled. A journalistic voice: informed, slightly opinionated, addressed to a general reader. Hook → context → two or three developed points → a wider implication. A closing line that widens out, or circles back to the opening image.
⚠ Exam tip

Spend thirty seconds on the form, then forget it. Write the opening convention (the “Dear…”, the headline, the address to the audience), decide on your sign-off, and then concentrate on content for the rest. Candidates who obsess over layout produce beautifully formatted answers with nothing in them — and layout is a small part of ten writing marks, while content is the whole of ten reading marks.

Never put a full postal address on a letter. It wastes twenty of your 300 words and earns nothing at all.

Inhabiting a persona while proving you read the text

The persona is not decoration — it is half the writing marks, because AO2 includes using language appropriate to purpose and to engage the audience. But the persona is also the trap, because it is fun, and fun is where candidates stop referring to the text.

Three rules that keep both sets of marks alive at once:

  1. Let the persona have one or two consistent habits of mind, drawn from the text. Dr Farrow, in Text C, shakes hands without removing her glove, thinks for a long time before answering, and corrects the obvious assumption about the dark. So the speech should be blunt, slow to reassure, and fond of overturning what the audience expects. Two habits are plenty; more and it becomes a performance.
  2. Convert every textual detail into something the persona would say, not something the narrator observed. The text says the huts “refused to grow any larger for twenty minutes”. Dr Farrow would not describe that; she would warn about it, because she has watched every new arrival experience it. Same detail, different owner.
  3. Aim for five or six recognisable anchors from the text across the answer. The examiner needs to be able to point at your page and say “there is Text C, and there, and there”. Fewer than five and it reads as invention; but each anchor must be developed, or it reads as retelling.
Remember this

Anchor, then push. Every paragraph should contain at least one thing that is unmistakeably from Text C (the anchor) and at least one thing the text never said (the push). Anchor without push = retelling. Push without anchor = fiction. Both together = R3.

The model response

Here is a full answer to the speech task above. Read it straight through first, then open the commentary underneath, which shows where each mark is being earned.

Thank you for coming. I am not going to tell you it will be fine, because you would stop listening, and because in about four months you will remember that I said it.

Here is the first thing, and nobody believes it until it happens. You have all prepared for the dark: lamps, a hundred hours of something to watch, a lecture about vitamin D. Good. Now prepare for the light, because the light is what breaks people. In November the sun stops setting; it circles you. No hour feels like an ending, and after six weeks you will find yourself in a corridor at three in the morning wondering why you are not tired. Tape your windows now, before you are homesick, not after.

The second thing is that this building is not on your side. The warmth is a shock when you come in off the ice, but the cold does not stay outside politely. It gets into the frames and the corners. Every morning somebody scrapes ferns of frost off the inner glass, and that somebody will be whoever admits first that it bothers them. Make it a rota on your first day, before it becomes a grievance.

The third thing is smaller and matters more. Somebody will leave a radio talking to itself in an empty room. Let them. In a place with no traffic and no neighbours, a voice that expects nothing from you is a kindness.

What I actually want to say is this. The plane leaves nine minutes after it lands, and for twenty minutes afterwards the huts will not appear to get any closer. Everyone stands there certain they have made a mistake. You have not. Walk. It arrives all at once.

290 words. Inside the 250–300 range. Five anchors from Text C — the light rather than the dark, the shock of the warmth, the frost on the inner glass, the muttering radio, the nine minutes and the twenty minutes — and every one of them pushed somewhere the text did not go.
Commentary Where the reading marks and the writing marks are being earned, paragraph by paragraph
Paragraph 1 — writing marks (W4, register)

“Thank you for coming” establishes the speech form in four words: an audience is addressed directly, in the present, out loud. The refusal to reassure — “I am not going to tell you it will be fine” — comes straight out of the persona in Text C, where Farrow corrects the obvious assumption about the dark rather than softening it. No reading mark yet, and that is fine: an opening paragraph is allowed to be pure voice, provided it is short.

Paragraph 2 — reading marks (R3, the biggest single block)

The anchor is Farrow’s one piece of direct speech in Text C: “The light. Not the dark. Everybody prepares for the dark.” That is eleven words in the original and it is the only clue given about the hardest part of wintering.

The push is everything else in the paragraph, and it is where the reading marks are actually earned: the sun circling instead of setting, the loss of any hour that feels like an ending, the specific image of standing in a corridor at three in the morning, and finally a piece of practical advice — tape the windows before you are homesick. None of that is in Text C. All of it is a legitimate consequence of what Text C says. This is exactly what “analyse, evaluate and develop” means.

Paragraph 2 — writing marks (W3, sentence variety)

Look at the sentence lengths: a colon-list, then a one-word sentence (“Good.”), then a long cumulative sentence, then a short imperative. That contrast is deliberate and it is what makes it sound spoken rather than written. Speeches earn their writing marks through rhythm more than through vocabulary.

Paragraph 3 — reading marks (R3, developed from one image)

The anchor is the frost that had “colonised the inner face of the window”, plus the warmth that was “almost an assault”. Both are recognisably from Text C and neither is quoted.

The push asks the question the text never asks: if frost forms on the inside of the glass every night, somebody has to remove it every morning — and in a shared hut that job silently attaches itself to whoever complains first. Ending on “before it becomes a grievance” converts a physical detail into a social prediction. One sentence in the insert has produced a whole paragraph of new thinking, which is the most efficient thing you can do in this question.

Paragraph 4 — reading marks (R3) and writing marks (W1)

The anchor is the radio left “muttering to itself in a corner” — a detail most candidates would ignore entirely, which is precisely why using it is worth so much. The push reframes it: not clutter, but a coping mechanism, and one the speaker gives everyone permission to have. “A voice that expects nothing from you” is the answer’s best sentence and it is also an AO2 mark, because it articulates something felt rather than merely stated.

Paragraph 5 — reading marks (R3) and writing marks (W2, structure)

The anchors are the plane that left within nine minutes and the huts that refused to grow larger for twenty minutes, both from the opening of Text C. The push is the interpretation Farrow puts on them: that the walk is when new arrivals privately decide they have made a mistake, and that they are wrong. The final three sentences shorten sharply — “You have not. Walk. It arrives all at once.” — which is the memorable last line a speech needs, and it also closes the loop by ending on the same image the text opened with.

The bullet points in the question

Check them off: what you found hardest (paragraph 2), what daily life is actually like (paragraphs 3 and 4), advice about how to cope (the tape, the rota, the permission, the instruction to walk). All three covered, none of them announced. You should never write “Now I will tell you what daily life is like” — but you must never leave a bullet unanswered either, because the mark scheme is built on them.

Rough mark: 9/10 reading — five separate anchors, every one developed, nothing merely retold. 9/10 writing — consistent persona, convincing spoken register, deliberate sentence variety, clean structure, strong close. The one thing it does not do is take a risk with vocabulary; a few more precise, unusual word choices would push the writing to full marks.

What a weak Question 4 looks like

Retelling — scores about 3/10 on reading
Good evening. When I arrived here the plane put us down on the ice and left within nine minutes because nobody wanted the skis to freeze. The station was a kilometre away and there were four huts on stilts. It was very cold and our breathing sounded brittle. Inside, the warmth was almost an assault and there was frost on the window.
The same details, developed
Good evening. You will have noticed that the plane did not switch its engines off. Nine minutes on the ice is all a pilot will risk, and it means that from the moment you step down, nobody is coming for you quickly. Hold on to that thought, because it explains almost every rule in this building — why we sign out, why we carry the radio, why I will be unreasonable about it.
The difference in one sentence: the left-hand version tells the audience things they can see; the right-hand version tells them what those things mean. Notice also that the left version is in the wrong voice — Farrow was not the narrator, so describing her own arrival as an observer breaks the persona as well as the reading marks.
  • Have I written in the exact form named — letter, report, journal, speech, interview or article — with its opening convention?
  • Have I answered every bullet point in the question, without announcing that I am doing so?
  • Can I point to at least five separate details that came from Text C?
  • Has every one of those details been pushed somewhere the text did not go?
  • Is my persona consistent, and does it match the character as the text presents them?
  • Am I between 250 and 300 words?
  • Have I copied any phrase of more than four words from Text C?
⚠ Exam tip

Plan Question 4 in three minutes, on the question paper, like this: write the three bullet points down the margin; beside each one write the detail from Text C you will anchor it to; beside that, write the “and therefore what?” in four or five words. That is nine short notes, it takes three minutes, and it guarantees you will not reach word 250 with a bullet point unanswered — which is the most common way this question goes wrong.

Practice Questions: Question 4 Extended Response
8 multiple choice questions. Click an option to check your answer.
Your Score 0 / 8
Question 1
How are the 20 marks for Question 4 divided?
A 10 reading and 10 writing
B 20 writing
C 15 reading and 5 writing
D 5 reading and 15 writing
An even split, which makes Question 4 unusual: it is the only place on Paper 1 where the way you write matters as much as what you understood. Neglect either half and you cap at ten. Most candidates neglect the reading half, because inhabiting a persona is more fun than referring to a text.
Question 2
Which of these is NOT one of the six forms Question 4 can ask for?
A A report
B A journal
C A short story
D An interview
The six are letter, report, journal, speech, interview and article. Narrative writing belongs to Paper 2 Section B. If your Question 4 answer has drifted into telling a story with a plot and a climax, you have wandered into the wrong paper and the reading marks are quietly draining away.
Question 3
A candidate rewrites Text C accurately in the first person, changing nothing else. What happens to the reading marks?
A Full marks, because the answer is accurate
B Full marks, because everything is supported from the text
C No marks, because the answer is not original
D Low marks, because nothing has been developed
R3 asks you to analyse, evaluate and develop. Changing the pronouns does none of those things. The examiner wants to see the text underneath your answer and see that you got somewhere the text did not. Retelling and inventing are the two ditches; the road runs between them.
Question 4
What does “anchor, then push” mean?
A Quote the text, then paraphrase it
B Include something unmistakeably from Text C in each paragraph, plus something the text never said
C Begin with the text and end with a quotation
D Write half the answer from the text and half from imagination
Anchor without push reads as retelling; push without anchor reads as fiction. Both together is exactly what R3 rewards. A useful mechanical version: take a detail, ask “and therefore what?”, and write the answer — a single sentence from the insert can generate a whole developed paragraph.
Question 5
You are asked to write a speech. Which is the best way to close it?
A “Yours sincerely”
B A summary of everything you have just said
C A short, memorable line that points forward
D “Thank you for listening.”
Speeches close on rhythm. Shorten the sentences and land on something the audience will carry out of the room — ideally an image already established earlier, so the ending closes a loop. “Thank you for listening” on its own is a stage direction, not an ending, and a sign-off belongs to a letter.
Question 6
What should a report contain that a journal should not?
A A title, sub-headings and a set of recommendations
B Fragmentary sentences
C Unresolved feeling
D Direct address to a named person
A report is impersonal, measured and organised for a reader who wants findings and actions. A journal is the opposite: private, unguarded, drifting, and best ended on an unresolved thought. Getting the register wrong is a fast way to lose writing marks even when the content is strong.
Question 7
Roughly how long should the Question 4 answer be?
A 120 words
B 200 to 250 words
C As long as you can manage in the time
D 250 to 300 words
250 to 300 words. Going well over does not add marks: the mark scheme is looking for developed ideas, not more of them, and a bloated answer usually means you have started retelling. Going well under almost always means a bullet point in the question has gone unanswered.
Question 8
What is the best use of the three minutes before you start writing Question 4?
A Deciding on a name and background for your persona
B Writing the bullet points down the margin, with a Text C detail and an “and therefore” beside each
C Rereading the whole of Text C
D Drafting an opening sentence you can polish
Nine short notes, three minutes, and the structure of the answer is settled. This is the single most reliable protection against the commonest Question 4 failure, which is reaching the word limit with the third bullet point untouched — a loss of several reading marks that no amount of good writing recovers.
6. Exam-Day Method ▼

The two hours, minute by minute

This is the same plan as in Section 1, expanded into instructions you can follow when you are nervous and the room is silent and your brain has gone slightly stupid, which is what happens to everybody in the first five minutes of an exam.

ClockWhat you do, exactly
0:00–0:01Write your four finishing times in the margin of the question paper, worked out from the clock on the wall. Q1 by +37. Q2 by +65. Q3 by +92. Q4 by +107. Do this before you read anything.
0:01–0:04Read all four questions on the question paper. Not the insert — the questions. Circle four things: the focus phrase in 2(a), the word limits (120, 200–250, 250–300), the form named in Q4, and the paragraph numbers named in 3(ii).
0:04–0:07Read Text A once, at normal speed. Do not annotate yet. Just understand it. Then go back and put a light mark beside anything that felt implied rather than stated — a contradiction, an odd detail, something a character does not say.
0:07–0:11Read Text B with the focus phrase in your head and a pencil in your hand. Number every point that answers it, in the margin, as you go. Do not stop to think about wording. You should end this stage with numbers 1 to 10 or 11 down the side of the text.
0:11–0:15Read Text C twice. First for sense — what is happening, who is speaking, what the place feels like. Second with a pencil: box the bold words, and put a tick beside any word or phrase doing something a plain word would not. Aim for eight or nine ticks; you need six.
0:15–0:37Question 1. Straight in, no introduction. Check the mark in each bracket, make that many separate points, move on. Do not go back to admire an answer.
0:37–0:42Question 2(b). Five attitudes, five short pieces of evidence. Five minutes, no more.
0:42–0:502(a) preparation. Convert your numbered points into notes in your own words. Four or five words each. Insert still open, but you are writing notes, not sentences.
0:50–1:002(a) drafting. Turn the insert face down. Write the summary from your notes, joining points with connectives, packing two or three points into each sentence.
1:00–1:052(a) counting. Count the words. Actually count them, in fives, with your pen. Cut whole clauses until you are at or under 120.
1:05–1:14Question 3(i). Short answers. Two sentences per bold word: sense here, plus flavour. No effects, no readers.
1:14–1:32Question 3(ii). Three examples from each named paragraph, four beats each. Roughly forty words per example, which lands you inside 200–250 without counting.
1:32–1:35Question 4 planning. Bullet points down the margin; a Text C detail beside each; an “and therefore” beside that.
1:35–1:47Question 4 writing. Opening convention, then the three bullets in order, then a strong close.
1:47–2:00Slack. In this order: (1) any sub-question of Q1 you skipped; (2) recount 2(a); (3) check Q4 covered all three bullets; (4) proofread for the two or three errors you personally always make. Do not rewrite anything you have already finished.

What to do in reading time — and what not to

Fifteen minutes is a lot of time and almost everybody wastes it, in one of two ways. Some people read all three texts passively, front to back, and arrive at Question 1 with a general impression and no annotations. Others highlight energetically and produce a page that is more yellow than white, which is the same as no annotations at all.

Annotate for question focus, not generally. That single instruction is the whole of good reading-time technique, and it is why you read the questions first. Concretely:

  • On Text A you are looking for implication. Mark places where somebody says one thing and does another, where a detail is oddly specific, where an expectation is set up and broken. Those are where the R2 sub-questions will be set, every time.
  • On Text B you are looking for points that answer one phrase. Number them. Nothing else on Text B matters — not the interesting statistic, not the good quotation, not the bit about the history of the river. If it does not answer the focus phrase, leave it alone.
  • On Text C you are looking for two different things: bold words (box them) and words worth writing ninety words about (tick them). Do not highlight whole sentences here. The language task rewards short quotations, so if you have highlighted a sentence you will have to choose inside it later anyway — choose now.
⚠ Exam tip

Use different marks for different jobs. Numbers for summary points, boxes for bold words, ticks for language, a wavy line for implication. Four symbols, and your insert becomes a set of instructions rather than a decorated page. Practise this on three past inserts and it becomes automatic; do it for the first time in the exam and it will slow you down.

Do not write sentences in reading time. Everything above is marks in a margin. The moment you start composing, you have stopped reading, and reading is what the next fifteen minutes were for.

The word limits, and why exceeding them costs marks

There are three limits on this paper and they behave differently. Learn which is which.

QuestionLimitWhat it really means
2(a) SummaryNo more than 120 wordsA hard ceiling. Material beyond it is effectively not rewarded. Count it, every time, with your pen. This is the one limit you must physically verify.
3(ii) Language task200–250 wordsA range with a real floor. Under 200 almost always means you did not develop your examples; over 250 usually means you are describing rather than analysing. Estimate by counting your six examples — forty words each is the target.
4 Extended response250–300 wordsA range. Under 250 usually means a bullet point is missing. Over 300 usually means you have started retelling the text, which is costing you reading marks at the same time as it costs you time.

Why the ceiling on the summary is enforced so strictly. The task being tested is selection. If you could write 200 words you would not have to select, and the question would test nothing. The limit is the question. This is also why examiners do not reward material past the limit and why “but my best point was at the end” is not an argument — putting the best point at the end and running over is itself a selection failure.

Remember this

Count in fives. Put a small dot above every fifth word as you count, and write the running total in the margin every twenty-five. It takes forty seconds for a summary and it is the cheapest insurance on the entire paper. Do not estimate by counting lines — handwriting size varies far too much for that.

What to do when you are running out of time

It will happen at least once in a mock, and possibly on the day. There is a right way to lose time and a wrong way. The wrong way is to keep writing carefully and simply not reach Question 4. Here is the right way, in priority order:

  1. Stop the question you are on, mid-sentence if necessary. An unfinished answer to a started question loses you one or two marks. An unstarted question loses you twenty. This is not close.
  2. Go to the question with the most unearned marks, not the one you like most. If Question 4 is untouched with fifteen minutes left, Question 4 is where you go, even if 3(ii) is half done.
  3. On a compressed Question 4, write short and cover all three bullets. A 180-word answer that anchors and develops three ideas scores far more than a 280-word answer that develops one beautifully and never reaches the third bullet.
  4. On a compressed 3(ii), do fewer examples properly rather than six badly. Four examples taken through all four beats will out-score six examples that stop at “this creates a vivid image”.
  5. On a compressed summary, write the points as compressed prose and stop. Do not abandon it and do not turn it into a list. Even a rough 90-word summary with eight points in continuous prose picks up most of the reading marks.
  6. Never leave a sub-question of Question 1 blank to save time. They are the cheapest marks on the paper. A one-line answer takes fifteen seconds and is worth as much as any other mark in the exam.

Ten ways students throw away Paper 1 marks

1. Answering the question you expected instead of the one printed

The summary focus is “the difficulties the volunteers face” and the candidate summarises what the volunteers do. Everything they write is accurate and almost none of it is creditable. This is the single largest source of lost marks on the paper, and it happens because the candidate read the text before reading the question properly.

Fix: copy the focus phrase, in the question’s own words, onto your answer booklet before you write anything. Look at it after every second point you write down. Three or four words, and it makes the failure almost impossible.
2. Lifting whole sentences from the text

The correct answer is physically present on the page and scores nothing, because the candidate has not shown which part of the copied sentence answers the question. Examiners describe this as failing to disentangle the answer from the text.

Fix: find it, cover it with your finger, say it differently, write that. Lift concrete nouns only. If covering the text would stop you writing the answer, you are copying rather than comprehending.
3. Ignoring the number in the bracket

A [3] question receives one idea explained three ways, or a [2] question receives four answers of which the first is wrong. Marks measure separate ideas, and where a number is specified only that many responses are read.

Fix: after every short answer, count your distinct points on your fingers against the number in the bracket. If they do not match, add or cut before moving on. It takes three seconds per question.
4. Going over 120 words on the summary

The candidate writes 165 excellent words. The final four points, which are often the best ones, were never rewarded. Worse, the extra 45 words took two minutes that Question 3 needed.

Fix: count in fives with a dot above every fifth word, then cut whole clauses — never individual adjectives — until you are under. Cutting a clause removes a whole idea; you want to remove the weakest idea, not weaken every sentence.
5. Writing a list instead of continuous prose in 2(a)

All the points are present, so the reading marks mostly survive, but the five writing marks disappear almost entirely because the task explicitly requires continuous writing. That is a third of the question thrown away for the sake of ninety seconds.

Fix: keep the list — in your rough work. Then join it with and, while, because, although, and with semicolons, packing two or three points into every sentence. The list is a tool; it is not an answer.
6. Device-spotting in the language task

“The writer uses a simile, which creates a vivid image and engages the reader.” The device is named, the effect is not, and the same sentence would fit any passage ever written. Answers built from these sentences hover around half marks no matter how many examples they contain.

Fix: after each quotation, finish the sentence “so the reader now…” with a specific verb — sees, hears, distrusts, expects, flinches. And explain what the phrase literally means here before you go anywhere near effects. That missing step is worth two or three marks on its own.
7. Defining bold words from the dictionary instead of from the sentence

“Colonised means to settle in a new country.” Technically true, completely wrong here, and it answers a question nobody asked. These are two-mark questions and a dictionary answer usually scores zero or one.

Fix: cover the bold word, read the sentence with a gap, and write what fits the gap. Then add the second half — the flavour the word imports that a plain synonym would lose. One mark for each half.
8. Retelling Text C in Question 4

The persona is convincing, the writing is fluent, and every idea in the answer already existed in the insert. Ten reading marks are being assessed on development, and there is none, so a well-written answer caps around twelve out of twenty.

Fix: take five details from Text C and, for each one, ask “and therefore what?” before you write. Anchor, then push. If a sentence in your answer could have appeared in the insert, it is doing no work.
9. Leaving a bullet point in Question 4 unanswered

Two of the three bullets get 150 words each, the third gets nothing, and the candidate runs out of words at 300 having never given any advice. The mark scheme is built around those bullets, so this is a straight loss of several reading marks that good writing cannot recover.

Fix: plan the bullets down the margin before writing, and allocate roughly a third of your words to each. When you reach 100 words, you should be starting bullet two. When you reach 200, bullet three.
10. Over-investing in Question 1 because it feels easy

The candidate writes full, elegant sentences with introductions for every sub-question, spends thirty-two minutes, and scores seventeen out of twenty. The eleven surplus minutes come out of Question 4, which is worth exactly the same as Question 1 and is far harder to do well in a hurry.

Fix: there are no style marks in Question 1. Write the ideas the bracket asks for, then stop mid-page and move on. Finishing Question 1 in eighteen minutes is not rushing — it is the plan.
11. Never checking anything

The candidate finishes at 1:52, sits back, and hands in a paper with an unanswered 1(d), an uncounted summary and three spellings they know they get wrong. Eight minutes of checking would have found all of it.

Fix: check in a fixed order and only in that order — blanks first, then the word count, then the Q4 bullets, then your personal spelling list. Never reread from the beginning; you will start rewriting, and rewriting a finished answer almost never gains a mark.

The last ten minutes

  • Turn every page. Is there a sub-question with nothing under it?
  • Count 2(a). Is the number written in the margin, and is it 120 or fewer?
  • Does Question 4 open with the right convention for the form named?
  • Does Question 4 touch all three bullet points?
  • Are there quotation marks anywhere in the summary? Delete them.
  • Have I written “vivid”, “effective” or “engages the reader” in 3(ii)?
  • The three spellings I always get wrong — have I checked those specific words?
  • Is my handwriting legible on the pages I wrote fastest?

One last thing, Tara. Paper 1 is not asking you to be brilliant. It is asking you to read carefully, follow instructions exactly, and stop when you have said the thing. Every single one of the eleven failures above is a process error, not a comprehension error — which means the difference between a good mark and a very good one on this paper is almost entirely within your control, and mostly consists of doing slightly less, slightly more precisely.

Practice Questions: Exam-Day Method
8 multiple choice questions. Click an option to check your answer.
Your Score 0 / 8
Question 1
What should you do in the very first minute of the exam?
A Read Text A
B Write your four finishing times in the margin, worked out from the clock
C Skim all three texts for general impressions
D Plan Question 4
Actual clock times, not durations. “Q1 by 10:22” is a thought you can act on at 10:20; “Q1 should take 22 minutes” is a sum you will never do again once you start writing. One minute spent here protects the whole paper.
Question 2
Why should you read the questions before reading the insert?
A Because the questions are printed first
B Because it saves time overall
C To decide which question to attempt first
D Because it converts your reading from browsing into searching
You cannot number summary points in Text B until you know the focus phrase, and you cannot mark implication in Text A until you know that implication is what is being asked for. Reading the insert first means reading it twice — and general underlining is the most wasted activity in the whole fifteen minutes.
Question 3
Which annotation is the right one for Text B during reading time?
A Numbering, in the margin, each point that answers the summary focus
B Highlighting every interesting sentence
C Underlining all the statistics
D Writing a one-line summary of each paragraph
Numbers, and nothing else. You should finish that stage with 1 to 10 or 11 down the side of the text and no words written. Anything on Text B that does not answer the focus phrase is irrelevant to both parts of Question 2, however interesting it is.
Question 4
You have fifteen minutes left and Question 4 has not been started, while 3(ii) is half finished. What should you do?
A Finish 3(ii) properly, then start Q4 with whatever remains
B Split the time evenly between them
C Stop 3(ii), even mid-sentence, and write Question 4
D Write a plan for Q4 and complete 3(ii)
An unfinished answer to a started question loses one or two marks. An unstarted twenty-mark question loses twenty. Always move to where the unearned marks are, not to where your work feels incomplete. A compressed 180-word Q4 covering all three bullets will out-score a perfect ending to 3(ii).
Question 5
What is the safest way to check the length of the 2(a) summary?
A Estimate from the number of lines
B Assume roughly twelve words per line
C Trust your sense of length from practice
D Count in fives, dotting every fifth word, with a running total in the margin
Handwriting size varies far too much for line-counting to be reliable, and being wrong by thirty words is expensive. Physically counting takes about forty seconds and is the cheapest insurance on the paper — and it also forces you to reread the summary, which catches lifted phrases.
Question 6
Your summary is 148 words. What is the best way to cut it?
A Shorten each sentence by removing adjectives
B Remove whole clauses, taking out the weakest idea
C Delete the final sentence
D Rewrite it entirely from scratch
Trimming adjectives across every sentence weakens the writing throughout and rarely saves enough. Removing one whole clause removes one whole idea — so choose the point that is least central to the focus, delete it cleanly, and leave the rest of the prose intact and fluent.
Question 7
Which of these is a process error rather than a comprehension error?
A Misreading what a character felt
B Not knowing the meaning of a bold word
C Summarising what the volunteers do when the question asked about difficulties
D Failing to notice a contradiction in Text A
And it is the largest single source of lost marks on this paper. The candidate understood the text perfectly; they answered a different question. That is enormously encouraging, because process errors are fixable by habit — copy the focus phrase down and look at it as you write.
Question 8
In the final ten minutes, what should you check first?
A Blank spaces — any sub-question with nothing written under it
B The spelling throughout
C The elegance of your Question 4 opening
D Whether your summary could be better written
Blanks are the only kind of error where the fix is guaranteed to gain marks. Check in a fixed order — blanks, word count, Q4 bullets, your personal spelling list — and never reread from the beginning, because that leads to rewriting, and rewriting a finished answer almost never gains anything.